Unfortunately, that's generally not the grounds on which objections are placed. Most people want numbers to work in some intuitive sense, or to be intimately tied to physical reality in some sense. This is preposterous even for the integers; there is nothing (that I know of) in this world which has the property that no matter how much of it you have, you can always have more. Once we work up to the real numbers, which are defined as equivalence classes of sets of equivalence classes of ordered pairs of integers, any connection to reality is purely coincidental.
Apparently, this camp is generally "refuted" by demonstrations via long division, which are perfectly valid -- if one first shows that long division "works." Which I doubt is happening very often on the internet. In a quick, nonscientific survey, I was completely unable to find a rigorous proof in the form of a simple, linkable image file anywhere on the internet, so I made one myself.
For background: the symbol "N . a1 a2 a3 ...," where N is an integer and each ai is an integer between 0 and 9, inclusive, is defined to mean the real number given by N + a1/10 + a2/100 + a3/1000... As an infinite sum is defined as the limit of the partial sums, N is the limit as n -> oo of the sequence N + a1/10 + a2/100 + ... + an/10^n. Now we just use a good, old-fashioned epsilon proof:

There you have it.

2 comments:
under the lim is a cymbol that according to wikimathepedia means "infinity". i couldn't make the 8 go sideways on my comp so i hope thats the right symbol.
so basically you have just begged the question because you used infinity to argue the existense of an infinity long number.
Que Dis Dictatum (QED) basically that means YOU GOT SERVED
I also learned that from wikimathepedia
-PW
for lots o' good .9999...=1 chat
check out this classic blog post
at polymathematics.
vlorbik
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